I have written about my misgivings about the original, now somewhat
discarded, 150 year old definition of entropy - and its consequences.
Those consequences being, in part:
The inability to come to grips with reality
without throwing exception after exception, having to define such a thing as
"negative" entropy to describe something positive, and getting into
contradiction after contradiction and argument after argument when
trying to define physical processes and conditions.
What, for instance, correctly and unequivocally defines thermodynamic
closure? What are the universal conditions for the Second Law of Thermodynamics?
How is entropy defined at low temperatures? At the
beginning of the universe?
And so on.
The original definition
My take is that things would have been and would be different, in the general concept of the world, if Rudolf Clausius had defined entropy the other way around;
not
S=Q/T (Quantity of heat by / Temperature),
but
S=T/Q (Temperature by / Quantity of heat),
As division by zero is forbidden, the factor that may theoretically and independently reach that
value (in this case, T) generally should not be put in the
denominator of a fraction.
However, this was done; and more than just once.
Why?
The general situation
Starting from a blank state, defining a relationship between two
factors as one divided by the other can be done in two,
inverse ways; and this without misinterpreting reality, while
laden with dire consequences in both cases.
So the question is primarily a question of practicability
- with a profound effect on the perception of nature.
You could, for instance, describe the number of chairs (4) to a table (1)
as 1 table to 4 chairs or 4 chairs to 1 table.
Or, a bit more intricate, the volume of air in a room (m³)
per person (p) as
a) m³/p or
b) p/m³
(using m³ to visualize)
- The first equation (a) is not defined for 0 persons (and
rightly so), while the second (b) is ("there is no-one in the room").
- In case of the volume of air being 0, the first expression spells suffocation or no room, while the second makes no sense.
Of course, in a room of fixed dimensions, people entering or leaving are
the more independent variable, and can easily reach zero.
So it seems clever
not to take them as the denominator, and define the relationship as
persons per volume or p/m³ instead.
However - and that is the point - this is not done.
The necessary or
resulting amount of air per person is usually expressed in as volume
per person or m³/p - and never mind the zero, as any statement
concerning an empty room is useless, and sensible use of the equation
begins with the first person ("1") entering it.
Of course, one could enhance the expression by calculation 0.5 persons
(children) or pets (0.25 persons) all the way down to one amoeba,
but that only proves the point:
Although mathematically silly, we use
the "wrong" one of the two possible ways to express a relationship
between two variables.
Why?
Because it is easier, more intuitive and practicable in everyday life,
and never mind the fringe silliness.
But more importantly, the question is:
Can you define the zero condition?
A more technical example
Wikipedia states that the current definition of speed was first arrived
at by Galileo Galilei,
who laid down that "speed" (v) should
furthermore be defined as "distance by time", or:
v = d / t
Now, it is of minor importance if it was indeed Galileo, or someone
else, or when speed was defined exactly. The importance lies in the fact
that:
- This was a decision to make; the relationship between space and time could have been set in two ways:
v = d / t ( = distance by time )
or
v = t / d ( = time by distance )
- Before one definition was chosen over the other for all future,
physical speed, other than "entropy" some centuries later, was not a
new concept; it had been an issue over millennia, in the realms of
sports, military, commerce and many more.
- That said, since it obviously up to a certain point in history
had not been defined in a mathematical equation, how had it been
defined before?
And had this historical definition been enhanced or discarded by Galileo, if we credit him with the new mathematical definition?
- And why did he favor "distance by time" over "time by distance"?
We will have to speculate
There are two possibilities:
- Galileo formulated the definition as it was being used, by giving contemporary common sense a mathematical expression.
- He revolutionized science (as he was wont to) by defining it contrary to contemporary common sense.
This is just for clarification; the historical common sense
definition of speed is of less importance than the consequences each
definition would have.
And there are, again, two options for that definition:
v = d / t or v = t / d
Let's have a look at these two options
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